AcademicQuran

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A forum for the discussion of academic Quranic studies, including questions about the Quran's formation, interpretation, historical context,...

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The original was posted on /r/academicquran by /u/slmklam on 2023-09-24 00:21:09.


I wrote this Reddit post because I want to receive feedback (especially from historical-linguists) on the etymological origin of زَكىَ (zakā/zakē), which might change the perspective on the ʾasḥāb al-kahf ('companions of the cave,' vv. Q18:9-27) narrative.

Basically, my theory is that the Arabic zakē is ultimately derived from Aramaic daḵē, via Hebraism, and later merged with a similar Arabic root z-k-w/y, expanding its meaning. This post will not have all the citations ready, coz this text is kinda in a proto-type stage and is not finished. I will perhaps edit it in the future when I have time, but kinda busy at the moment. The only purpose I get is the feedback on the idea and all. Forgive me if the text appears unclear or anything like that coz I am merging notes together too. Anyways, let's start.

For those who do not know what the Qurʾānic story of ʾasḥāb al-kahf is about, it recounts a brief tale of young believers who sought refuge in a cave to escape pagan persecution and miraculously fell asleep for many years, only to wake up later to server as a proof for resurrection, sign of the hour, acknowledgment of divine knowledge, and the importance of faith.

Beyond the Islamic tradition, the Qurʾānic account finds parallels with the Christian traditions, primarily the Syriac versions like ṭalyē d-efesōs (“youths of Ephesus”), authored by the eminent Syriac bishop Jacob of Serugh (c. 451-521 AD)². This Syriac version narrates the story of eight young Christian men who refused a pagan ruler named ܕܩܝܘܣ (deqyūs)³, which mirroring the historical Roman emperor Decius (249–251 AD), by offering sacrifices to pagan gods. The young men escaped to the mountains outside Ephesus (modern-day Selçuk, Turkey) during the emperor's absence, seeking refuge in a cave, asking God for help until God ascended their spirit to heaven and left an angelic guardian over their physical bodies. Emperor Decius sealed the cave to trap them, hoping they would die, but they awoke when the wall was later removed during Christian emperor Theodosius II's reign (401–450 AD). One sleeper attempted to use Decius-era coins, which caused a lot of unwanted attention. The city's bishop⁴ investigated, highlighting the miraculous nature of their story. The youths slept once more, challenging a contemporary heresy denying bodily resurrection, and ultimately affirming the legend's purpose.

Our focus on this post is this Qurʾānic verse:

Transliteration: fa-lī-ʾunẓur ʾayuhā ʾazkā ṭaʿāman fa-lī-ʾatukum birizqin minhu…Translation: And then let him find which food is the purest, and bring your provisions from it.- Q18:19

Perhaps one of the most overlooked aspects of the ʾaṣḥāb al-kahf narrative is the implications and connotations woven into the phrase ʾazkā ṭaʿām ("purest food”). Interestingly, compared to the Jacob's version, this phrase is absent. In the Syriac narrative, after the youths woke up from their sleep, a certain companion named ܠܡܠܝܟܐ (lamlīḵā) among them was willing to go down and check if they were still hunted by the pagans. The youths added to lamlīḵā:

“Take small change and bring back some ܠܚܡܐ (laḥmā, “bread”): ever since evening we have been short of bread, and we have not had a meal”(Brock translation, Guidi, Testi Orientali Inediti, )

In this specific context, lamlīḵā was instructed to get laḥmā ("bread"), as opposed to the Qurʾānic reference to ʾazkā ṭaʿāmin ("purest food"), takes on distinct significance. Evidently, a discernible disparity emerges in the depth of discourse among the companions, evident within Q18:19, with a notably more elaborate portrayal in comparison to its Syriac counterpart. Zellentin (PPQ; 2022, 286) suggests that the context of v. 19 indicates an attempt to avoid food contamination from religious errors, such as idol worship, improper slaughter, or the consumption of prohibited animals. I would argue that the Qurʾānic usage of "purest food”, as found in v. 19, pertains to dietary law, particularly those rooted in Jewish purity laws. Numerous biblical passages address the concept of something called טומאה (ṭumah, "impure") and טהרה (ṭaharah, "pure"), representing the notion of ritual purity. The combination of "pure" + “food" is recurrent in many biblical verses (e.g. v. Lev. 11:47).

Considering the Christian perspective, it begs the question: Did they have dietary regulations? Early Christians did have some sort of dietary law, which was influenced by Judaism, e.g. abstain from food sacrificed for idols. This might echo the Apostles’ Decree as described in Acts v. 15:20:

“Instead we should write to them (the gentilic Christians), telling them to abstain from food polluted by idols, from sexual immorality, from the meat of strangled animals and from blood.”

The idea of being κᾰθᾰρός (kaṯarós, "pure”, Mat 5:8, Rom 14:20, 1Ti 1:5, 1Pe 1:22, etc) in Christian world was crucial in late antiquity. Purity played a significant role in defining distinctions, hierarchies, and transformations within these communities. Early Christians pondered questions like what distinguishes them from non-Christians, and maybe more important to our focus, abstaining from certain foods were seen as forms of purification (Blidstein, 2017). The dietary law in early Christendom was still limited and understood significantly different from the Jewish counterpart. As 1 Timothy 4:4-5 says:

“For every creature of God is good, and nothing to be refused, if it be received with thanksgiving: for it is sanctified by the word of God and prayer”

This verse emphasises that food is not inherently impure or unclean, and that it is only through human attitudes and actions that it can become so. Or in Acts 10:9-16, the apostle Peter has a vision of unclean animals and is told by God to "kill and eat." Peter initially objects, given his adherence to Jewish purity laws, but ultimately comes to understand that God's message is one of inclusion and acceptance beyond the boundaries of these laws.

As the 2nd-century, Christian writers, such as Barnabas, Aristides, and Galen, of the period held a negative attitude towards Jewish dietary rules, rejecting them to establish Christian identity. They used various strategies to incorporate these laws into their theological and ethical systems while downplaying their practical significance. Christian customs were seen as morally valuable, while Jewish law was viewed as lacking moral worth. Symbolic interpretations infused spiritual elements into the laws, while non-symbolic interpretations integrated them into moral discourse. The concept of impurity was contested, and Christian writers sought to understand the laws within a cosmic battle of good and evil framework, finding Jewish practice inadequate and illogical. Their explanations aimed to make the biblical laws more comprehensible from a Christian perspective (Blidstein, 2017). In 4th-5th century Upper Mesopotemia, the idea of biblical dietary law was discussed due to it’s relation to the Old Testament in certain Syriac communities. It appears that many considered them to be a matter of personal choice or preference rather than an obligation. While some Syriac Christian writers, including Aphrahat, recognised the value of the dietary laws in the past, they tended to view the practice of these laws as of less importance in the present reality of the Christian community. This attitude was reinforced by the cultural context of the Syriac-speaking regions of the Near East, which were characterised by a mix of Christian, Jewish, and some pagan populations, and where food practices and taboos were not necessarily tied to religious identity.

One might argue that the Quranic concept of "purest food" could reflect this Christian historical context, even though it's not explicitly mentioned in the original source material. However, it may seem peculiar to some why this concept was expanded upon instead of retaining the Syriac meaning of "bread". Some have said that the Qurʾānic author was just "Islamising" the story, but it did not make sense if it could just use the word ḥalāl in this context. I have seen Christian stories turning into a more Muslim version like found in the Sīrah of ibn ʾisḥāq Faymyūn and Ṣālih instead of Paul and John (Butts; Young; 2020). There are several intriguing details in sūrah al-kahf, such as "stoning" instead of "beating with a rod," the mysterious Quranic al-raqīm (Q18:9) instead of Syriac lōḥē ("tablets"), the maximum mention of seven sleepers while Jacob is mentioned as eight, and various other noteworthy features. Even the word itself, zakē, doesn't align with the Syriac Aramaic usage of daḵyā.

Now, the theoryThe Qurʾānic term أَزْكَىٰ (ʾazkā/ʾazkē, “purest; purer”, also Q2:23, Q24:28, 30), in relation to Q18, is the elative form of زَكَىٰ (, zakā/zakē, “pure”), which also appears as a verb in Q24:21. According to Köhl's dictionary (HALOT, 1997; 221), the Hebrew זָךְ (zāḵ) and Aramaic דַכיָ (daḵyā/daḵē) share a cognate with the Arabic zakā/zakē. Nicolai Sinai, in his dictionary (KTQ, 2023), states that zakā is fro...


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The original was posted on /r/academicquran by /u/Dry_Street_7961 on 2023-09-12 17:00:16.


How many a day prayer is required?

Does Qur'an endorse Muslim women to cover their hair?

Is alcohol prohibited in Qur'an? If so, from where does Qur'an got this rule. Because neither Judaism nor Christianity prohibited alcohol.

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The original was posted on /r/academicquran by /u/Jammooly on 2023-09-11 06:58:39.


What is the earliest text in Islam that describes how to pray?

There’s this common incorrect notion that how to pray is described in the Hadiths but the Hadiths don’t actually touch upon the “how to pray” aspect too much.

So what are the earliest texts describing fully how to pray (step by step) the prayer in Islam?

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The original was posted on /r/academicquran by /u/Resident1567899 on 2023-09-10 13:28:02.


I've been reading up a bit on the non-Islamic sources of Islam within the first 50 years (special thanks for u/chonkshonk for the post!) and there seems to be stark differences between these non-Islamic sources and traditional Islamic ones.

For example, non-Islamic sources seem to mention Muhammad was alive during the conquest of Jerusalem and Palestine like Doctrina Iacobi which mention Muhammad coming with the Saracens. Sebeos mentions Muhammad giving a speech to his followers about conquering the land of Israel. Maybe also Thomas the Presbyter since he mentions a battle between the Romans and "Arabs of Muhammad". But in Islamic sources, Muhammad was said to die before the conquest so is there anything I'm missing here?

Second, the brutal killings of civilians by the Arabs mentioned in sources like Doctrina Iacobi, Thomas the Presybester, a Syriac fragment from 637 and the chronicler from Khuzistan. But as I've heard, Muslim massacres and killing of civilians were rare. So which one is it?

Third, the names of the conquerors. Traditional Muslim sources claim they were called Muslims but non-Islamic sources, too many to choose from called them as Tayy, a northern Arab tribe or Hagarenes (mhaggre) or perhaps comes from the word Muhajirun. But why? Why didn't use the word Arab or Muslim? Was there a language barrier or did the word Arab and Muslim did not exist yet in their languages?

What is the perspective of scholars on this? Is the traditional narrative true or the non-Islamic one? Is there a reconciliation here?

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The original was posted on /r/academicquran by /u/Rurouni_Phoenix on 2023-09-10 06:02:11.


Other than Brannon Wheeler's Moses in the Quran and Islamic Exegesis, are there any other academic sources which examine the quran's interpretation of Moses in light of its Jewish and or Christian late antique backgrounds?

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The original was posted on /r/academicquran by /u/chonkshonk on 2023-09-10 00:20:35.

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The original was posted on /r/academicquran by /u/ZenoMonch on 2023-09-09 15:23:43.

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The original was posted on /r/academicquran by /u/SecurityTheaterNews on 2023-09-08 17:16:40.


By the fig, by the olive, by the moon, and on and on. I did a search for "by the" and got 472 results with almost all of them Allah swearing by some created thing.

This seems very strange to me. Do the mufassirun have a rationale for this?

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The original was posted on /r/academicquran by /u/Radiant-Hedgehog-695 on 2023-09-08 07:09:54.


For the longest time, I thought the Gathering of Khadir Khumm was one of the most reliably documented events in Islamic history. However, while I was reading through Aaron W. Hughes' Muslim Identities, I was struck by Hughes' doubts regarding its authenticity:

Despite the apparent authority of such hadiths, which seem to designate Ali clearly as Muhammad’s self-appointed successor, the fact of the matter is that they were written much later and likely date to the origins of the early Abbasid dynasty. This dynasty, it will be recalled, sought to legitimate itself through its claim of descent from the Hashim clan—the clan of Muhammad and Ali—as opposed to the clan of Abd Shams (the clan of Uthman and Muʿawiya, from which the Umayyad dynasty sprang). Like many of the earliest sources of Islam, hadiths extolling Ali’s claim to the caliphate are not necessarily historical documents, but rather attempts to make the past meaningful in the context of the present and in anticipation of the future. (Pages 118-119)

Even among Sunni scholars, there exist disagreements.

For example, Ibn Hazm writes in his Al-Fasl:

وأما من كنت مولاه فعلي مولاه فلا يصح من طريق الثقات أصلاً وأما سائر الأحاديث التي تتعلق بها الرافضة فموضوعة يعرف ذلك من له أدنى علم بالأخبار ونقلتها

As for [Ghadir Khumm], it is not authentic from the trustworthy narrators at all. As for the rest of the hadiths that the [Shiites] relate to, they are fabricated. This is known to whoever has the slightest knowledge of the reports and their narrations. (Page 116)

(I must mention that Ibn Hazm was probably too strict in his ratings of hadith reliablity.)

Ibn Taymiyyah writes in his Minhaj al-Sunnah:

أما قوله من كنت مولاه فعلي مولاه فليس هو في الصحاح لكن هو مما رواه العلماء وتنازع الناس في صحته فنقل عن البخاري وإبراهيم الحربي وطائفة من أهل العلم بالحديث انهم طعنوا فيه و ضعفوه ونقل عن احمد بن حنبل انه حسنه كما حسنه الترمذي وقد صنف أبو العباس بن عقدة مصنفا في جميع طرقه

As for [Ghadir Khumm], it is not in the Sahih books, but it is from what the scholars narrated, and they disputed its authenticity. It was narrated that al-Bukhari, Ibrahim Al-Harbi, and a group of scholars with knowledge of hadith criticized and weakened it. Ahmad ibn Hanbal and al-Tirmidhi considered it hasan [minimally authentic]. Abu Al-Abbas ibn Uqdah listed all of its chains. (Pages 319-320)

However, modern Islamic scholar al-Albani hits back at Ibn Taymiyyah, writing in his Collection of Authentic Hadith:

فمن العجيب حقاً أن يتجرّأ شيخ الإسلام إبن تيمية على إنكار هذا الحديث وتكذيبه...فلا أدري بعد ذلك وجه تكذيبه للحديث إلا التّسرّع والمبالغة في الردِّ على الشّيعة

It is truly astonishing that Ibn Taymiyyah dares to deny and belie this hadith...I do not know the reason for his denial of the hadith, other than haste and exaggeration in responding to the Shiites (Pages 263-264)

And in his Lives of Noble Figures, al-Dhahabi confirms the authenticity of the narration:

هذا حديث حسن عال جدّاً , ومّتْنُهُ فمتواتر

This is a extremely hasan hadith, and its matn [text] is mutawatir. (Page 335)

And of course, the elephant in the room is how this numerously reported hadith is mysteriously missing from most of the Sahih books.

For a hadith so widely narrated, why there remains disagreements in Sunni circles whether it's reliable? And is Hughes correct in his view that Ghadir Khumm may have been fabricated by Abbasids to strengthen their claims to Banu Hashim?

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The original was posted on /r/academicquran by /u/longtimelurkerfirs on 2023-09-07 10:49:50.


Here's an excerpt from Tony Burke's "Syriac Tradition of the IGT" showing how it thrived in Syriac Tradition along with other works such as the Life of Mary:

"IGT was known in Syriac speaking lands by at least the fifth or sixth century—the time of the earliest known manuscript, published over a century and a half ago by William Wright.

...

It is clear from the number of manuscripts that IGT was a very popular text in the Syriac churches. Though it is found as a separate text in only a few manuscripts, it had a much richer life as part of collections of apocryphal texts featuring episodes from the life of the Virgin Mary. One branch of this tradition, the West Syriac Life of Mary, is examined here from 19 Syriac manuscripts and another 13 in Garšūnī.

Another effort to collect Mary-related apocrypha is found in the East Syriac History of the Virgin, known in 21 manuscripts, though only four of them incorporate IGT. Many of the manuscripts containing the two Life of Mary compendia seem to have been created specifically for use in Marian piety, as they often contain additional Mary-related texts, including hymns and miracle stories. And these books of Mary were copied well into the nineteenth century. For many Syriac Christians then, these texts contained acceptable depictions of Jesus’ childhood years; they were neither frivolous nor blasphemous."

In his book, Tony Burke analyzes and compares various Syriac manuscripts presenting the stories of the Infancy Gospel of Thomas. He notes how the IGT finds its place in books about Mary retelling stories of her birth & childhood, infancy Jesus miracles & education in Bethlehem, and the death & departure of Mary. These include sources (obviously besides IGT) such as the Protoevangelium of James, Six-Books Dormition of the Virgin, and the Visions of Theophilus.

Just so, the Quran, in 3:35-3:55, curiously presents such events in a similar manner; Mary's birth, childhood, and the anunciation of Jesus as the 'Word from God' from Proto James, then Zechariah's prayer from Luke, Jesus' divine education of Biblical Scripture as a child, and finally the Thomasine clay bird miracle.

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The original was posted on /r/academicquran by /u/Volaer on 2023-09-07 08:26:52.


Hi,

My question is specifically about ch. 7 v. 158.

Say, “O mankind, I am indeed the Messenger of Allah to you all—He to whom belongs the dominion of the heavens and the earth; there is no god but He. He gives life and causes death, so believe in Allah and His Messenger, the gentile Prophet who believes in Allah and His words, and follow him, that you may be guided.”

Many Quranic passages speak about the distinct purpose of the messenger as a gentile prophet sent to the Arabs in order for them to have a revelation in their own language (as do Jews and Christians).

For example:

And this(too) is a blessed Scripture that We sent down, so follow it and be righteous, that you may receive mercy. Lest you say, “The Scripture was sent down to two factions before us, and we were indeed oblivious of their teachings.”

And thus We revealed to you an Arabic Recital, that you may warn the Mother of Towns and those around it and warn of the Day of Assembly, of which there is no doubt: a group in the Garden (of Paradise) and a group in the Blaze.

Here however it seems that the Quran is extending its target audience to all humanity. My question is therefore who is the Quranic message for from a historical perspective?

Thank you

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The original was posted on /r/academicquran by /u/Odysseus-of-Ithaca on 2023-09-06 15:01:19.

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The original was posted on /r/academicquran by /u/Adam592877 on 2023-09-06 12:10:50.


I came across a peculiar hadith collection that is supposedly from the 1st century AH. Is anyone familiar with academic writings on the matter?

EDIT:

For clarity, I'm already familiar with the isnad for the text and its contents

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The original was posted on /r/academicquran by /u/Snoo_33640 on 2023-09-05 20:45:28.

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The original was posted on /r/academicquran by /u/WantonReader on 2023-09-05 11:40:20.


I haven't read much of the koran but I understand the premise that it is god literally adressing the prophet muhammed, who in turn, verbatum, speaks the words.

But I am having issues understanding who or how, the koran is adressing. Most of the time, the text seems to be lika any other book, it is using an omniscient narrator or it is from the point of view of the reader. But that doesn't amke sense to me if it is god telling humans about himself.

Take the very first chapter, the opening:

"In the name of god"

"it is you who we worship"

"Guide us to the straight path"

"the path for those you have blessed"

That sounds like words from people who are adressing god. But it is supposed to be the opposite, words from god adressing people.

Am I misunderstanding something? Why is god speaking in the "role" of the listener? Why is it not just third person or even first person if he speaks about himself?

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The original was posted on /r/academicquran by /u/SoybeanCola1933 on 2023-09-04 10:46:37.


It certainly appears that early Islam was quite ant-Bedouin, especially if we read through the Hadith. Is there any truth to this? Looking through the Hadith it certainly appears as if the early Muslims were not Bedouin, nor were the Bedouins active in the early Muslim community.

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The original was posted on /r/academicquran by /u/FamousSquirrell1991 on 2023-09-04 08:53:16.


In her article "How Did the Quranic Pagans Make a Living," Patricia Crone points out that there are multiple references in the Meccan surahs to the mushrikun being farmers, which does not seem to fit the typical view of Mecca. Especially interesting are references to olives (6:99; 6:141;16:11), for the olive "is a tree adapted to Mediterranean conditions" (p. 393). Furthermore, the pagans are being described as eating fish and extracting "ornaments" (possibly seashells or pearls) from the sea (16:14) and as owning cows (6:144).

What do you think of this?

Article:

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The original was posted on /r/academicquran by /u/sunalienz on 2023-09-03 17:18:15.

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The original was posted on /r/academicquran by /u/bleh_bleh_bleh_157 on 2023-09-02 16:11:51.


So the Qur'an has many names, "Al-Furqan" "Al-Tanzil" "Az-Zikr"... but I wanna focus on "Al-Kitab" which means a book.

This intrigues me, because the Qur'an was never a book during Muhammad's life. For 23 years since Muhammad's ascension as a prophet, the main transmission of Qur'an was by oral (according to Islamic narrations). Allah revealed to Muhammad via Gabriel by oral, and Muhammad passed it on to Muslims also by oral, given that he was illiterate.

There were the companions who did know how to write, and so they wrote the verses on rocks, wood, date leaves and animal skins (I learned this from my theology book). And these writings weren't compiled into one single book, until the early Rashidun Caliphate, where Abu Bakr intend to fight the apostates, zakat-evaders and the false prophet cults, and during those battles, many huffaz were killed in the process.

So, I wonder how was it being called as "the book" ? Or maybe the word Kitab contains different meanings ?

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The original was posted on /r/academicquran by /u/AdAdministrative5330 on 2023-09-02 03:50:44.


The academic review of hadith collection and historicity of hadith is quite fascinating. My question is hypothetical. Given the realities and physical constraints that existed during Mohammed's setting; what could early followers or leaders have done to leave behind artifacts, tangible or intangible, that could have dramatically bolstered the historicity of the actual events of Mohammed's life from his followers, adversaries and neutral parties?