this post was submitted on 10 Jul 2025
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[–] Epp2 12 points 3 days ago (3 children)

Because Merriam Webster creates and produces the dictionary of the English language. They're literally the one who decides if a word is official. Their retort is succinct.

[–] [email protected] 39 points 3 days ago* (last edited 3 days ago) (3 children)

Nope. They document what words are in common use. English is a "form follows usage" kind of language, where popularity of a word makes it correct. That's why "literally" can mean its own antonym and influencers get to make up new meanings for Fetch and Mid.

Less architectural, more suicide note.

[–] [email protected] 7 points 3 days ago

This is true, they describe themselves as descriptive rather than prescriptive: https://www.merriam-webster.com/grammar/descriptive-vs-prescriptive-defining-lexicography

[–] [email protected] 5 points 3 days ago

They did say "official" though.

[–] [email protected] 5 points 3 days ago* (last edited 3 days ago)

Partly right, but they don't decide if a word is "official" (whatever that's supposed to mean). For a word to be a so-called "real" word it only has to be in common use among some group, dictionaries simply document words that have been in common use. Merriam-Webster is an authoritative record of words in use specifically in US English (with some records for other English variants and dialects, I think? ) but they are not a prescriptivist organisation. A word which appears in their dictionary is almost certainly a word that is or was in use in US English but a word that doesn't appear might also be a real word, particularly if it's a relatively new word or meaning.

So with that in mind, arguing that a word is real when it doesn't appear in the dictionary can be valid in some cases, but arguing that a word isn't real when it does appear in a dictionary (like Brian did) is generally not smart.

tl;dr, a dictionary, not the dictionary; not all English; "official" doesn't make sense here; in some (but not this) cases disagreeing is valid.

[–] [email protected] 6 points 3 days ago* (last edited 3 days ago) (1 children)

How is just tagging him by name, and repeating his first name succinct? I don't get any sort of meaning from that response, it reads like a mistyped response.

[–] [email protected] 8 points 3 days ago (1 children)

Just imagine your mom saying your full name with an audible full stop, right after you said/did something a bit dumb

[–] [email protected] 2 points 3 days ago (2 children)

But it wasn't just saying his first name. It was "First Last First"

[–] [email protected] 5 points 3 days ago (1 children)

Oooh, I wonder if that's part of what's confusing the other guy. At this point I just completely filter out the tag when I'm reading a post like this, since very few people intend to incorporate it into the comment.

[–] [email protected] 2 points 3 days ago

As someone who's managed to never use Twitter, it was very confusing. I guess it's one of those things you pick up subconsciously and never really think about once you've used the system enough.

[–] [email protected] 6 points 3 days ago

the 'first last' is just how tagging a user works.