this post was submitted on 14 Nov 2023
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[–] [email protected] 17 points 2 years ago (3 children)

Why is it the rich never starve if it's just a totally unaccountable natural disaster?

[–] [email protected] 3 points 2 years ago

Rich usually have more resources and ability to purchase them at elevated prices. Hope that helps

[–] [email protected] 2 points 2 years ago (1 children)

Because they have money duuh.

[–] [email protected] 1 points 2 years ago* (last edited 2 years ago) (1 children)

So it's less of a natural disaster and more of an economic disaster? I wonder why people would blame governments for that...

[–] [email protected] 1 points 2 years ago* (last edited 2 years ago) (1 children)

It is like miles away from the intentional economical engineering we are talking about. Still not sure why you are so bent on trying to wiggle them into a comparsion between regimes and personnel more direct, intentional and immediate like Mao or Stalin.

If you dont distinguish from those, then why even have a debate on them?

The joke implied that the question intended to ask one or very few directly involved personnel and you disregarded that. Thats it.

[–] [email protected] 0 points 2 years ago (1 children)

Right sure, when the British intentionally abuse Ireland and India it's really just a whoopsie-daisy.

[–] [email protected] 2 points 2 years ago (1 children)

Should I really do the same kind of jumping to conclusions?

Are you saying that the largest completely man made famine ever does not really deserve that much of a recognition?

[–] [email protected] 2 points 2 years ago

Nope. I'm just saying they're all "man-made".

[–] [email protected] 0 points 2 years ago

The rich and the party cadres