AskHistorians

The wiki says it was transferred to Europe via the middle east. It seems obvious the Arabic numerals we use today are so much easier to work with than Roman numerals.

Was there a noticeable uptick in trade simply because bookkeeping became so much easier? Was there a noticeable uptick in the complexity and pervasiveness of monied, as opposed to in kind, daily trade in all levels of society?

It seems like the humble zero hit the scene and next thing you know the Renaissance is getting under way.