this post was submitted on 22 Jul 2024
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If the british had built comparable infrastructure in India as in the UK, if they had industrialized it, if there had been no extraction of wealth, resources and of human labor, if there had been a similar amount of doctors and hospital beds per capita as in the UK, if there had been a similar amount of teachers per capita as in the UK, if there had been similar salaries for locals in India as those in the UK, if there had been education in the native language sponsored by the UK... If all of those things were true, then the UK wouldn't have been committing colonialism in India. The difference is that they didn't do these things, where as the USSR did. It's not a matter of opinion, it's simply factual. So, yes, the UK committed colonialism against India. the USSR never committed colonialism to any of its republics.
I'm not saying the USSR was responsible for the development of the Estonian economy, Estonia was relatively industrialised prior to the establishment of the USSR. But the Estonian industry grew very fast even after the annexation to the USSR. Again, you're grasping to whatever you can, because all the evidence points towards the same: there was no colonialism in the USSR.
Please. Show me the data for that. Show me how exploited the Estonians were, how much lower their wages were than in the rest of the USSR. Spoiler alert: data contradicts your claims.
Trading between different republics within the USSR wasn't subjected to unequal exchange, which conforms the BASIS of colonialism. Saying that Estonia went and started trading more with the USSR than with the west is as useful and interesting analysis than saying after the 90s Poland started trading more with the west than with Russia.
Again, please, for the love of god, read a fucking book on what colonialism is and what "unequal exchange" means. It's literal high-school stuff, the whole "import raw materials and cheap labor, export complex to manufacture goods", remember???